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Was it really the German intention to occupy France indefinitely?
Been reading more into Vichy and the armistice signed when France surrendered and it totally changed my perspective of ww2.
I honestly believe that had Britain surrendered or made some sort of peace with Germany, the entirety of France (maybe not Alsace) would have been returned to the Vichy government. (But with strict armistice conditions similar to those imposed on Germany after ww1)
It’s interesting to think about what would have happened in Europe if there was a state of peace at any point after Sept 1, 1939 and before D-Day.
Just read about the armistice and how the common sentiment from the French delegation and the German delegation was that the terms were temporary until Britain negotiated with Germany for a peace/ surrender.
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