I'm so confused. The polls weren't remotely close, they guaranteed he'd lose if he called the election. This confuses me because - he ran for the job not that long ago, just last year. He's worked in politics a while, so I'd assume he more or less knew what's involved with the job. Why did he try to get the job if he didn't want it? Just for prestige or to say he got to do it or something? If that was the case, why not just personally step down and let another Tory do it and you don't have to deal with the embarrassment of an election defeat rather than calling an election. Having resigned would be better for his future career than having caused the worst defeat on the parties history. I just can't understand the logic behind it. I'm not a Tory, but I'm not even trying to hate on them, I just genuinely do not understand what the thought process or purpose was? There was just obviously no way from the polls this result was going to be any better for the Tories; I don't understand why it was considered preferable by Sunak to be defeated instead of him just resigning, or trying to strike a deal with Reform not to stand and waiting it out to improve the odds in Autumn. I know everyone's saying 'he just wants to go and have a summer holiday in America', and yes obvz he does, but he also could have had that sooner, easier and with alot more prestige by just resigning and not having to do a whole re-election campaign for six weeks? I just can't understand the motivation to do it. Not trying to praise or criticize any party, I just can normally understand motivations and reasons for doing things but in this case... I've got none? He just wanted out and didn't think it through to realize he could literally just resign and be better off? Did a witch curse the Tories to ensure they can't have a leader more than a few months without getting into a kerfuffle with each other? I have no explanation for it, it's one of the weirdest things I've seen anywhere ever politically.