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An interesting issue seen in a game I refereed recently. Player A fouls on a red, free ball awarded. A yellow is over its own pocket. Player B takes the yellow (with no explicit nomination that the yellow was his ball on). Do you think this is a foul?
The majority of players I've spoken to believes it's a foul. But surprisingly there's no mention of having to explicitly call a free ball. Therefore, in the case I mentioned above, the yellow was implicitly declared (as there wasn't any other ball the player was aiming for). Now if it's ambiguous, the ref would have to call "Please declare", or it would be a foul.
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