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Titles a bit misleading, but I'll explain. I'm sort of researching this just for my own knowledge. The science says that 13% of condom users get pregnant, and less than 1% of pill user get pregnant. However, the science says that 1.6% of those who use both get pregnant. That seems very strange doesn't it? (And the studies accounted for those who use the pill incorrectly, at 9% chance of pregnancy, so i dont think this played a factor). Is there some chemical reaction in one that counteracts the other? Still, I suppose 1.6 is better than 13.
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