First of all, I'm a foreigner in a country in which I do not yet master the language despite a fairly good level of it. I am not questioning the doctor, I'm questioning my own understanding of what he told me.

Long story: I noticed a wart nearby my penis this week and decided to go check with an urologist for the first time ever because it looked like HPV. He saw it and right away confirmed it was HPV. He was adamant I did not need to do any further tests and that it would be a waste of time to screen for other STIs given the lack of any other symptoms and no relations with sex workers.

But if I understood it correctly, he said I got it from a partner within the previous 6 months up to 3 weeks ago, given the symptoms appeared now, and that I should warn any partner within that time. I had multiple partners in that period and I'm obviously dreading having this conversation with any of them. If necessary, I will, of course.

PS¹ I'm 40 years old and everyone I have been with in the past 6 months is of similar age as myself and certainly have had a dozen or more partners in their lifetime.

PS² I will go back to the clinic next week to remove the wart and then I'll have another chance to confirm everything with the doctor, but I would like to have a better knowledge or a guideline to better understand the situation before asking so there are no misunderstandings.

PS³ The doctor said I can go back to being sexually active as soon as the wart is removed/disappears even though the infection itself may take 2 years or more to clear (if ever) and that new warts could appear meanwhile and I should also have them removed if it does. Does that seem correct also?