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Hypothetically speaking; Charles had remained married to Diana, they still had William and Harry, and when the Queen had died Charles became King and Diana becomes Queen Consort. Now, say they divorced afterwards and Charles remarries Camilla, who would now be the Queen Consort. My question is; if Charles and Camilla (Camilla is much younger in this example) had children, would William still be heir? Or would Camilla’s child become heir?
I assume that it would still be William, but I wasn’t sure if there was some kind of loophole?
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I feel like I read or saw on a documentary that Wallis wasn’t able to have any children due to a botched abortion.