I'm looking for the rationale behind the prohibition. Please do not refer to Divine Command Theory or taqleed (''because Allah said so!'').

What comes to mind as the most common explanation is the protection of lineage and procreation. I do not see how this is relevant today. Firstly, we have effective contraception. I know many respond to this by pointing out the many illegitimate children that are still born out of wedlock, but not using contraception is the problem there, not premarital sex.

Secondly, this is only relevant to heterosexual penetrative sex. If it was about childbirth, it would make more sense to prohibit that instead, instead of all forms of sex.

Thirdly, procreation isn't even a possibility in homosexual premarital encounters. PS: I am not arguing for a defense of homosexuality itself - that has been done adequately elsewhere; I'm talking about premarital homosexuality.

Why can't sex just be for pleasure? why does it have to be restricted to exclusive and committed relationships?