https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1880/soc-utop/ch03.htm

Then came the concentration of the means of production and of the producers in large workshops and manufactories, their transformation into actual socialized means of production and socialized producers. But the socialized producers and means of production and their products were still treated, after this change, just as they had been before — i.e., as the means of production and the products of individuals. Hitherto, the owner of the instruments of labor had himself appropriated the product, because, as a rule, it was his own product and the assistance of others was the exception. Now, the owner of the instruments of labor always appropriated to himself the product, although it was no longer his product but exclusively the product of the labor of others. Thus, the products now produced socially were not appropriated by those who had actually set in motion the means of production and actually produced the commodities, but by the capitalists. The means of production, and production itself, had become in essence socialized. But they were subjected to a form of appropriation which presupposes the private production of individuals, under which, therefore, every one owns his own product and brings it to market. The mode of production is subjected to this form of appropriation, although it abolishes the conditions upon which the latter rests.

In the first bolded part, in what sense is this newly socialized production still treated as the production of individuals? in the sense that the products of socialized production were appropriated by individuals (capitalists)?

in the second bolded part, how does the new (capitalist) appropriation presuppose the private production of individuals? historically, social production was preceeded by the individual production of artisans and farmers, i understand that, but how does social production presuppose private production?

when engels says, "The mode of production is subjected to this form of appropriation, although it abolishes the conditions upon which the latter rests", i agree that the new social (capitalist) mode of production abolishes the (precapitalist) conditions which allow for private (precapitalist) production, but how does this new (capitalist) form of appropriation rest on the (precapitalist) conditions which are being abolished?