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A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
In the wake of the recent shooting in Uvalde, I've seen gun control advocates emphasizing this wording when arguing with gun rights absolutists. I don't remember ever seeing this emphasis and haven't really ever given this part of the amendment much thought.
So that got me thinking, how has the Supreme Court interpreted this part of the 2nd Amendment in the past, or has it been completely overshadowed by the "right to keep and bear Arms" bit?
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