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I’ve read a few threads and it seems prenuptial agreements mainly focus on separate vs commingled property. Isn’t that already sorted out through law. What is acquired prior to marriage is considered separate property and anything bought during is commingled… point blank. Drafting up a paper to declare something already known?
The stronger prenups had these attributes. Gave a couple arbitrary examples.
• Have separate Lawyers • Give each other enough time to sign/read document (cannot be coerced, won’t marry you if you don’t sign this). • Proportional Representation of commingled Property acquired during marriage. IE: (Wife contributes 30%, Husbands 70%, husband can’t take 100% of house).
Don’t forget Prenups EXPIRE!!
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