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Title is kind of click-bait, I already know that in Alabama he could be entitled to a portion of the house since we purchased the house during our marriage. But...
The mortgage and deed are 100% in my name. His name is not documented anywhere. He pays cash towards the mortgage payments monthly and there is no record of this other than our verbal agreement. A lawyer friend who is not representing me told me that because he is "voluntarily underemployed" and various other factors, a judge would likely look favorably on me and not award him 50% of the house.
Looking for general advice on what you as a lawyer or plaintiff have seen in cases like mine. How likely is it that I have to sell? I really don't want to sell and lose my house, given that I paid 100% of the down payment and closing costs, and the mortgage is in my name alone. It doesn't seem fair that you can just marry into home ownership without financial contribution.
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- 5 months ago
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