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Proving trig. identities
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( 1 - cos x ) / sin x = ( sin x ) / 1 cos x
I'm looking over the work and I was wondering if anyone could explain why is it that in the first step it's being multiplied by the conjugate? As well as when is it possible to do multiply by the conjugate
Edit: thank you to everyone for helping me, I finally understand!
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Ahhh I see Thank you very much for explaining!