I wanted to learn more about the HIV transmission rate statistics.

https://stanfordhealthcare.org/medical-conditions/sexual-and-reproductive-health/hiv-aids/causes/risk-of-exposure.html

I recently read this article about HIV transmission statistics. The article says that serodiscordant relationships (when unprotected sex occurred) were typically used for the data. NOWHERE does it mention if the HIV positive partner was undetectable or on ART at the time of the studies!

In my opinion, this is incredibly misleading. So much so, that I even justified my unprotected encounters because 1.4% seemed very unlikely. Obviously, I still should have used condoms, but I KNOW I wouldn’t have had unprotected sex if that number was as high as 10%.

HIV undetectable folks have NO chance of spreading the virus. And the data would be heavily skewed as a majority of positive people are receiving treatment! Why the FUCK were they included in the data?

Perhaps I’m reading the article incorrectly. I really hope that I am. Regardless, this seems like a necessary thing to specify in all further studies.

Please, anyone with more knowledge than I, refute or confirm my suspicions. Thank you.

Edit: Why are y’all acting like I’m pissed about this cus I’m HIV positive. I’m pissed that very misleading information is still being shown on 99% of sites. This could harm thousands of people in the future, and I don’t want that to happen. That’s the only reason I find this urgent and relevant.

Edit: I removed my anecdote because it was entirely irrelevant to my argument, and even though I thought that was clear some people definitely did not. It was simply there to preempt my argument. Just a reminder that you don’t have to react like a furious child.