I've been involved with this man off and on a total of 4 times in 10 years. This last time alone was 2 yrs. He had said he didn't want a relationship and I was trying to heal from my divorce (we didn't see each other while I was married!), so I was fine with it. At any rate, my divorce was a bad one, and it took me over a year and a half to begin feeling like my old self again... wanting to dress/feel more feminine, starting to think of possibly dating, etc. I was very open about it & did not imply I wanted to date him. I felt nothing for him. But starting in the late fall, he started doing things he knew would make me fall in love with a guy (we'd discussed these things over the 2 yrs). Then it got to the point of appearing as though he'd met someone new, while insisting he hadn't, all the while sending mixed signals and even acting a bit jealous. I'd distanced myself about 3 times over the 2 yrs, and he had several chances to bounce peacefully, yet he'd always come find me... admitted to stalking my house one of those times, he and his best friend checking my social media another... We finally called it off at the start of the new year and things ended badly. My question is, if I'd had no feelings for him for almost 2 yrs, why would he not take the out each time I gave him one, and more importantly, why did he intentionally get my feelings involved just to play me and hurt me at the end? That's what he was doing, right? We've been in NC for a few weeks now.