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So let me see if I can get this straight…..
The people elect a politician
The same people then proceed to vote to approve the legalization of adult use of cannabis.
The afore mentioned politician decides that HE doesn’t agree, so he wants to repeal this approval despite the fact that the same people that voted to elect him, voted for it to pass.
Therefore implying that “the will of the people has been made clear” when it came to his election (which I’m sure had nothing to do with Gerrymandering) was fine but the will of the people to legalize marijuana is not.
Did I sum that up accurately?
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- 1 year ago
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