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Is the existence of a particle dependent on whether it is observed?
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It started with RRC's explanation on how an electron can be "round", in which a free particle was used.

Then this question was posed, and a discussion ensued.

Throughout the discussion I've been told that the prevailing understanding of QM is that - to paraphrase the user with whom the I had the discussion - "[a] particle [does not have] any properties such as location or spin or anything until they are measured(and again, it's meaningless to say something without a location, or spin, or momentum, etc... exists) . This is the orthodox view of quantum mechanics, often called the Copenhagen Interpretation."

Now I'm horribly confused. It is my understanding that the existence of a free particle is given when discussing any such system. That's why we start with "let's consider a free particle", and we get a trivial solution of 1 when integrating the probability distribution over all space. The act of observing (or lack thereof) does not change this.

I listed the scenarios in my discussion:

1) No free particle.

2) Free particle that has not been observed.

3) Free particle that has been observed, and therefore has taken a particular state for some observable property.

Is there, within the prevailing view of quantum mechanics in the physics community, an explanation where the act of making an observation causes a switch from scenario 1) to 2)? Any input would be great! Thanks.

Edit: I have a feeling the answer is likely "there is no difference (to us) between 1) and 2), and therefore the question is moot."

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Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

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13 years ago