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How do you make sense of God’s “virtuous” violence, man’s excuse to use OT text to support their own violence, and Jesus’s non-violence?
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And no, I’m not posting this just to rile people up.

I’m specifically talking about the bits where God either commands an entire people group be eradicated (including babies) or does it Himself.

As for the thousands of people who have used the OT as support for violence and the millions of people who have been harmed because of it- my guess as to how you reconcile is“if people just read it the correct way we wouldn’t be having this problem”?

Lastly if your answer is along the lines of how Jesus’s life death & resurrection somehow calmed God’s wrath, then… eek

Where im currently at - and I know, I know, I know you’ll all be very concerned for me which is fine - is that what we read in the OT and who Jesus is simply doesn’t add up. If Jesus is our model, and if we know God by looking at Jesus, then the only conclusion I can come up with (after asking and searching for years mind you, including seminary) is that the Biblical writers had um… issues, and were influenced by what they believed was righteous violence.

Anyway, yeah, hit me with your thoughts, hope to come across something new!

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11 months ago