This post has been de-listed
It is no longer included in search results and normal feeds (front page, hot posts, subreddit posts, etc). It remains visible only via the author's post history.
My wife is a teacher and last year we had our first child. Her district at the time didn't offer a maternity leave so she used FMLA to take leave to stay home with our baby for the first 3 months. I understood fully that she wouldn't be paid for that time. The part that confused me so much is that the district kept over 75% of her pay I am assuming to cover the cost of the substitute. What I don't understand is she wasn't paid for the time she was off so why didn't that money go toward paying the sub? I've always been a private sector employee and have never heard of this. I'm perplexed as to how it was even legal. I really want her out of the classroom.
Subreddit
Post Details
- Posted
- 2 years ago
- Reddit URL
- View post on reddit.com
- External URL
- reddit.com/r/Teachers/co...