My wife is a teacher and last year we had our first child. Her district at the time didn't offer a maternity leave so she used FMLA to take leave to stay home with our baby for the first 3 months. I understood fully that she wouldn't be paid for that time. The part that confused me so much is that the district kept over 75% of her pay I am assuming to cover the cost of the substitute. What I don't understand is she wasn't paid for the time she was off so why didn't that money go toward paying the sub? I've always been a private sector employee and have never heard of this. I'm perplexed as to how it was even legal. I really want her out of the classroom.