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Sorry if this is a super-beginner question.
I always thought it's a quirk of the english language that have can mean to own and can be used as an auxiliary verb to express necessity. I mean, I don't see any objective or inherenet similarity between
"I have a cat" (that is, I own a cat),
and
"I have to go to the store" (that is, I must go to the store).
So I was quite surprised when I learned that the verb tener (to own) is used to express necessity, albeit with an added "que". Why is it that
"tengo que ir a..."
is correct? Is it a simple coincidence that the verbs to own in the two languages are also used as auxiliary verbs to express necessity?
That seems rather far-fetched.
Thanks in adavnce.
You can also use hay que, it's more general it's like saying, there is a need to rather than I have to.
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