For context, I (F) have a partner (M), who has a second (F) partner who I have also had a sexual relationship with, and she has been with 1 other (M) in recent weeks.... Being sensible, I did an STD test recently & it came back as positive for gonorrhea (I've had the treatment now so all ok) so obviously have told my partner, who told his partner, who told the other guy...

Now, before I ever met any of them last year I had a thing with a couple of different guys, with whom I always used condoms for penetrative sex but not always for oral. It's technically outside of the timeframe as it was so long ago but I've been in touch with them anyway and both have had negative tests come back, so the assumption is that it's come from the other side... My partner was also tested around the time that we first got together around 6 months ago and was negative then, as was I.

BUT the others say they haven't been with anyone else. I do trust my partner and for various reasons can't see the point of why he would lie if he'd been with someone else, bearing in mind when we first met I was seeing someone else (there was a bit of overlap lol) and he had his other partner already.... But the fact remains that I know I haven't been with anyone other than the guys who've turned up negative, my current partner and his partner so one of them or the other guy must be the source?? And I'm just baffled as to why they would all say they've not been with anyone else if they have been - we're all practicing non-monogamy and open about having multiple relationships so why feel the need to lie about this? I'm so confused lol

Or am I missing something? Is it possible that one of my previous partners had it, passed it on and then got well again spontaneously? Or is there some other scenario that could explain it all that isn't one of the three of them lying about it?? Personally I'm not too invested in it either way - I've had the treatment, so has my partner, the others are getting sorted and playing the blame game holds very little interest for me, but others involved (especially my partner) are really anxious about it and really want to know how this happened. Any thoughts???

TLDR - I had gonorrhea, my previous partners both tested negative. My current partner & the only 2 others who it supposedly could have been passed through deny having been with anyone else... Someone must be lying as the infection can't have just come from nowhere - or is there some other scenario I've not thought about that would explain all this innocently??