I’m not sure if this needs links or sources since it’s technically gender reversal, but this is more of a theoretical question, so here it is:

So I just had a fight with a couple of my family members over the issue of consent and the aftermath of an altercation throughout the course of history, specifically within the past 100 years. My statement was that if a man and a woman had a sexual altercation 100 years ago it would always go back on the woman being a slut, and the man getting away Scott free, even if the man was being aggressive and it wasn’t consensual. Take that same situation today, and especially in a court of law, it would always reflect on the man, even if the woman was being aggressive and it wasn’t consensual. This is partially because of the me2 movement but also because of the constant custody battles between men and women in this day and age with divorces, turning courts into a bias against men in certain levels. This is a bit exaggerated and not completely accurate of course, but I’m really curious what other people have to say about this.