This is in England. Our road adjoins an old 19th Century mill, which has a number of odd property boundary shapes as the mill was redeveloped. Included in this was an area owned by the mill, but outside of their boundary wall, and with no close access to either of their entry gates. For 30 years this space has been used by the 5 houses opposite as shared parking (on a narrow road with no other parking space, and houses which face directly onto it), with just enough space for 5 cars.

The factory site has been out of use for nearly 10 years, was sold to a new owner, and has been going through a number of redevelopment plans. It has recently been sold to another owner, and we have been sent a letter from their solicitor asking that we vacate the area we use for parking by the end of May.

My first inclination is to send the solicitor back an offer to see if they might be interested in selling the parcel to us. However, I'm also wondering how this situation might play into things like easements? We have no paperwork I can find that has ever offered the right to park there, and similarly no record of there ever being an objection.

Happy to answer any other questions!