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What if Aragon and Navarre never separated?
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In 970, Sancho GarcĂ©s II inherited the kingdom of Pamplona (Navarre) upon the death of his father, GarcĂ­a SĂĄnchez I. Due to GarcĂ­a I’s marriage to Andregoto GalĂ­ndez, the Countess of Aragon, Sancho GarcĂ©s II would also inherit that as well. Barring a few interruptions which involved Aragon being promoted to a Kingdom, Navarre and Aragon would remain in a personal union under the JimĂ©nez until 1134, with the death of Alfonso the Battler. Alfonso, through his marriage to Urraca, the Queen of LeĂłn and Castile, and his conquests into Zaragoza, effectively became the “Emperor of All Spain”. But, as is the case with many warrior kings, he had no direct heirs upon his death, and thus, succession crisis. His brother, Ramiro, would become the King of Aragon, and GarcĂ­a RamĂ­rez, the great-grandson of a previous JimĂ©nez king, would be proclaimed King of Navarre by the regional nobility. And thus, Navarre and Aragon would be separate entities until 1516, when Navarre was divided and half was given to Joanna, the Queen of Spain, and thus also Queen of Aragon, among other things.

So the question has to be asked, what if things had played out differently? What if either Alfonso the Battler had produced a legitimate heir, or the Navarrese had accepted Ramiro II as their King? No matter, what if Aragon and Navarre remained in personal union? How would this affect Iberia, and western Europe as a whole? How could it change the Reconquista, and the fate of Christian Spain? What becomes of Castile and Portugal? How would other states fit into this situation? And, what would the long-term ramifications be from this?

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1 year ago