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TLDR: what's my risk of acquiring hpv after 2 doses of Gardasil-9 and what acts carry less risk of transmission?
Hi, so I am polyamorous man in my mid 30's who is dating 2 people: I'm married to a person with a cervix, who has pretty severe hypochondria, and a woman who has hpv. Given this, in late June I got my first dose of Gardasil 9, and a second dose in September, 84 days later. My partner having hypochondria, I told my partner that I would get vaccinated before doing anything sexual with this other person.
While I was getting my second dose, the pharmacist mentioned that the National Advisory Committee on Immunization recently updated guidelines for HPV immunization, and the World Health Organization to only a two dose schedule of Gardasil-9. However, neither of these notices go into detail on the rationale for the decision, or what the difference in effectiveness is.
This woman I've been dating, lives a fair distance away from me, and we'll be visiting soon, and I want to know what the risk level of engaging in anything sexual at this point? I want to understand the risks so I can decide what I want engage in and how to talk about it with my partner.
My question how do different dose schedules vary in their effectiveness? What benefit will I, as someone who has 2 doses out of the 3 dose schedule, get from a 3rd dose? What is my protection like?
I'd also like to know how different types of exposures to HPV (kissing vs hands vs genitals vs oral) affect transmission?
I know this was a pretty long and in depth post, but thank you for making it this far and for any studies you can link!
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