TW for frontal sex, pregnancy, and periods.

I generally use condoms and Prep for STI prevention. But my long-term partner and I don't use condoms because we're both tested regularly. I haven't had a period at all for 1.5 years. I've had a non-hormonal IUD for about 7 years.

I know the only 100% pregnancy prevention is abstinence, blah blah blah. I know you can technically ovulate without a period, however unlikely. I know IUDs are 98-99% effective but if you have unprotected sex to completion 50-100 times that means you could get pregnant. Despite knowing all this, I have thought the combo of no periods plus IUD makes it pretty much impossible. Maybe I've been naive, though.

My question is, would you still wear condoms (strictly with a tested partner, only for pregnancy prevention) if you were in my situation? Does mathematically combining statistics make sense here? Say it's 5% likely when you don't have periods long-term and a 2% likely with the IUD, would it still just be the lesser (2%) or would it be <1% due to mathematical probability of both being bypassed? (I made up the 5% because there aren't actual statistics available about non-menstruating trans men on T ovulating, but you get the idea).