"The drug was expressly designed to provide what the patent application and package insert referred to as "very deep analgesia and profound and intense euphoria" as well as tranquillisation and anterograde amnesia useful for surgery and battlefield wounding cases. Oxycodone was allegedly chosen over other common opiates for this product because it had been shown to produce less sedation at equianalgesic doses compared to morphine, hydromorphone (Dilaudid), and hydrocodone (Dicodid)."

Why does low dose oxycodone often cause stimulation rather than heavy sedation typically associated with opioids? What is the major pharmacological difference between oxycodone and other opiates/their derivatives that makes this possible? Is it due to the drug's distinct binding profile to the MOR, DOR and KOR relative to other painkillers or is there another reason?