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Yes, I know this is a high topic discussed in this Subreddit. However, I have a question that should be easy to understand and explain, but for some reason I am having a hard time catching it from every angle.
Here's the statement:
"If you transfer a balance with this offer, interest will be charged on new purchases and unpaid introductory balances after your 0% introductory APR on purchases has expired, unless you pay the entire balance (including any transferred balance) in full each month by the due date."
Now, here's my question:
If I am understanding correctly, If I make a balance transfer to this card, and also use for making purchases, I still do not have to pay for interest on the statement balance of each billing cycle, until my introductory 0% APR ends. Then, after it ends, I will then be charged whatever the APR is set to for the card in the agreement I sign, but I won't be charged interest for the first (i.e.) 18 months of the 0% APR offer, right?
I've gotten credit cards before, but never for a balance transfer, and I am aware of the 3-5% fee for that one transfer, which for me it would like like around 130-40 for this single transfer from another card.
I don't want to get a card and not understand this whole situation.
Thank you and please be respectful when replying, not everyone understands freely how this works.
<3
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- 1 month ago
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