I've been in a sexual, fluid bonded dynamic with my partner for almost a year. Recently, she told me that she has been taking an antiviral medication due to pain in her vagina.

Per her account, she was sexually assaulted decades ago. After the assault there was a constant pain in her vagina. She did get a viral STD, molluscum. However, while she had it surgically removed, the constant pain remained. During treatment of molluscum, she was prescribed an antiviral. She's had multiple doctors exam and attempt to diagnose the pain and sti/std screenings come back negative.

I feel as if, even though her tests come back negative, since this is such an abnormal situation, so abnormal that she's been paying to take an antiviral for stds just in case, that I should have been told prior to engaging in sexual intercourse so I could make an informed decision if I wanted to take any risk. It could be nothing, but since there has been no diagnosis made on what it is, no further testing is being done, and it was a direct result of sexual assault and (or aftermath) of an std, there is still a probable risk. Am I overreacting or am I valid or feeling this way?