I will post them separately though, so I can get into specifics for each.

Maybe this is the wrong place to even ask, but I will anyway. When it comes to sampling rates, my understanding is that, for example, 44.1khz is the amount of samples per cycle (second) that the recording is made digitally. But I have been doing a lot of reading about this and the authors of what I am reading often mention the audible frequency of the human ear. This doesn't make sense to me. here is an example of this being mentioned: https://www.headphonesty.com/2019/07/sample-rate-bit-depth-bit-rate/ where part-way down the page it is stated, "In a typical digital audio CD recording, the sampling rate is 44,100 or 44.1kHz. If you’re wondering why the frequency is so high when the human ear can only hear frequencies up to 20kHz at best. It’s because of the Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem."

Okay, so I will say again, digital recordings, for CD media for example, are made at a sampling rate of 44.1kHz. That is 44,100 samples per cycle (second), not an audible frequency of 44.1kHz, am I wrong? Our audible range has nothing to do with the sample rate that a digital recording is made. It is simply the number of "snapshots" of analog audio per second that a analog-to-digital converter takes of that analog audio sound and converts to PCM data. Please correct me if I am wrong, I am trying to educate myself on all this but I am getting/reading so much contradictory information that doesn't make sense.

In conclusion, I am understanding that our ears can translate analog vibrations into music/sound/frequencies. Silicon chips take analog waves and sample them at a particular rate/speed (just as a camera records frames per second in a video format) and convert that into PCM signals. The sample rates have nothing to do with our audible frequency range. Am I wrong or right? Thank you for your help.