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It's a question that once came up during a post-sex conversation. Our sexual interaction is completely marked by a wife who enjoys submissive aspects and me on the opposite pole of domination, so we are a perfect match in sexual compatibility. However, a specific practice that is always present in our sexual life is the aniligus performed in her.
The question is: would this be form of reverse domination in which she exceptionally submits me? In other words, is the receiver of anilingus closer to the submissive or dominant spectrum?
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- 10 months ago
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In fact, she asks me to do it on her, not literally with words, but we have our own dynamics of self-knowledge to understand nonverbal signals.