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So I've gone through the derivations of the Bell inequalities a few times, and while the mathematics all makes sense, I have trouble really "getting" it (i.e. groking it). It feels like a black box magic trick that results in a seemingly arbitrary bound on correlations that holds for classical systems, but is broken in the quantum case.
Can anyone help me get a higher level picture of what's going on, the sort of understanding that would let me easily re-derive the inequalities if I totally forgot the specifics of where they come from?
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