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Why has urbanization in MENA been so high?
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Currently reading Economic History of the Middle East by Charles Issawi. In 1800, MENA was one of the most urbanized regions in the world. Comparable to the European powers at the time. He says it could be because the feudal structures were weak and most of the landlords/military leaders resided in the urban centers. Thereby, increasing the purchasing power of the city and hence acting as a pull factor for rural migrants. Moreover, the taxes were lower and during famines (and there were quite few) the councilors favored the urban dwellers over the countryside residents. Wondering if the sub has anything else to say besides the reasons listed by Dr. Issawi.

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4 months ago