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Why The Conservative Party won every election in the United Kingdom in the years 1951-1964?
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I'm doing an assignment based on the above question, but I've only got my course textbook to hand right now (AQA A2, The Making of Modern Britain, 1951-2007, published 2009 by Nelson Thornes) and my conclusion is probably going to be that the disunity of the Labour party was a big factor in this. I'm looking for more sources and viewpoints to offer counter points or further support for this view. If anyone could point me in the right direction it would be greatly appreciated. Thank you in advance!
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