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In Legal Origins by Glaeser and Shleifer (2002), they give an economic argument on how France had wars on its soil during 22% of the years in between 1100-1800, whereas England only had 6% of the times (p. 1208).
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jinnyjuice is
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One of the reasons Glaeser and Shleifer give is because central power in France had smaller power compared to more local/regional authorities, whereas the English was more of the opposite case. How true is this from the perspective of historian literature?
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