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Why is the op-amp not able to amplify this voltage? It's a straight-forward non-inverting configuration with ideal op-amps(LTSpice simulations)
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So I have the following configuration(pretty straight forward right?)
But following are the waveforms of V_induced(the voltage to be amplified) and V_induced_amplified. As you can see, the voltage is attenuated. I can't for the life of me imagine why, since I am using ideal-opamps. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated.
Edit: Thank you all for your time and responses. The problem was in the GBW of the 'ideal opamp' on LTspice.
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