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Why is it that when learning a language that isn't English you're only considered fluent if you don't have an accent from your native language, however when it's the other way round your considered fluent even if you have an accent
Post Body
ie. If you are from a country that doesn't use English as their main language, and you learn English, you are considered fluent if you still have an accent from your native countrys language
Comments
I do not consider this to be true. Who thinks this? So based on this assumption, only native born speakers are considered fluent? That is an impossible standard and diminishes the millions of immigrants who have lived and worked for decades in their new home country and still speak with accents.
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- Posted
- 1 year ago
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- reddit.com/r/Accents/com...